Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
10.06.2025 00:45
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Measles vaccination rates drop after COVID-19 pandemic in counties across the US - AP News
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
A closer look at the striking metamorphosis of Tyrese Haliburton - NBA
You'll usually find your answer there.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Why is it easy to make money in the USA?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.